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To solve this problem, we'll follow these steps:
Understanding these steps, let us proceed:
Step 1: The operation given is , which is division with 134 as both the dividend and the divisor.
Step 2: Recognize that since 134 is a non-zero number, dividing it by itself, , equals 1.
Therefore, the solution to the problem is 1.
1
\( 1\times1000= \)
Think of it this way: division asks "how many groups?" If you have 134 items and divide them into groups of 134, you get exactly 1 group!
Great question! is actually undefined in mathematics. Our rule only works for non-zero numbers like 134.
Yes! The colon (:) and fraction bar (/) both represent division. So
Absolutely! and . Any non-zero number divided by itself equals 1.
Try this: "When I divide by myself, I get 1 of me!" Or think of sharing: if you have 134 cookies and 134 people want equal shares, each person gets 1 cookie.
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