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Let's keep in mind that the numerator and denominator of the fraction have terms with the same base, therefore we use the property of powers to divide between terms with the same base:
We apply it in the problem:
Remember that any number raised to the 1st power is equal to the number itself, meaning that:
Therefore, in the problem we obtain:
Therefore, the correct answer is option a.
\( 112^0=\text{?} \)
Because division undoes multiplication! When you multiply , you add exponents to get . So dividing reverses this by subtracting.
Any number to the first power equals itself! So , , etc. This is why our final answer is just 2.
Yes, but it's harder! You'd need to calculate and , then divide 16 ÷ 8 = 2. The exponent rule is much faster!
If you had , you'd get . Any non-zero number divided by itself equals 1!
No! This rule only works when the bases are the same. For , you must calculate each power separately, then divide.
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