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To solve this problem, we'll follow these steps:
Let's work through these steps:
Step 1: Convert the mixed numbers:
Step 2: Divide the fractions:
To divide by , we multiply by the reciprocal of :
Step 3: Simplify and convert back:
Simplify :
The greatest common divisor of 40 and 15 is 5:
Convert to a mixed number:
remainder , so .
Therefore, the solution to the problem is .
\( 1\frac{4}{5}\times1\frac{1}{3}= \)
Mixed numbers have two parts (whole + fraction) that make division complicated. Converting to improper fractions gives you single fractions that are much easier to divide using the standard "multiply by reciprocal" rule.
Use this pattern: . For : multiply whole number by denominator (6×3=18), add numerator (+2=20), keep same denominator = !
The reciprocal flips numerator and denominator. For , the reciprocal is . Division by a fraction equals multiplication by its reciprocal - it's a fundamental rule that makes fraction division possible!
Divide the numerator by denominator. For : 8÷3 = 2 remainder 2, so the answer is . The quotient becomes the whole number, the remainder becomes the new numerator!
Yes! Always simplify improper fractions first. simplifies to (÷5), which is much easier to convert to than working with the larger numbers.
Yes! Multiply your answer by the original divisor. If you get the original dividend, you're correct: should equal ✓
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